From: A Torah
Commentary on James 3-5 Return to Home
By Roland H. Worth, Jr. © 2014
[Page 429]
Chapter 5C:
Problem Texts—Verses 1-10
5:1: Are the wealthy considered automatically
as sinners and the poor as righteous? One body of thought assumes that since
certain (some? the bulk?) of the rich
are counted as sinners, that James intends to imply that all the wealthy
are automatically counted as such as well.
In that case, those poor they are contrasted with are to be taken as the
entire category of the poor. It
should be noted that the interpretation is open to the challenge of inserting a
universalism which the language need not require—though it admittedly
permits it.
Furthermore, the contrast in the verse is between the rich and “the
just” (verse 6). The first is a
financial category and the second is a moral / ethical one. How then could “the just” possibly equate to
the entirety of the poor? Most
aren’t “just,” are they?
Furthermore, the specific type of “laborers” under discussion (verse 4)
are the morally upright of verse 6. That
would not be to condone the murder of the immoral poor, but that they are not
the subject of attention.
[Page 430] In modern society this equation
of poverty and the poor has tended to become wrapped up in the ideological
issue of the propriety of possessing great wealth and how one handles the
perpetual gaps between the wealthy and those who are not well off at all. Of however great an interest this is, it does
not remove the fact that moral behavior is the center of James’ analyses
and the proper behavior of both those with and without wealth. Once one recognizes that only the pious
poor are under specific consideration, the political use of the text has a
crucial support wrenched out from under it.
For James is simply not concerned with any political theory at all; he
is concerned with proper and just treatment of others—with moral
behavior. He is not out to destroy the
wealth of the rich or incite some revolution of the theoretically (or actually)
oppressed, but to warn those with an abundance that all they have will not
protect them from the far greater power of the God of Israel.
It has been argued that during
the intertestamental period that the term “poor” even became self-adopted
by religiously devout groups who were also at the bottom of the contemporary
economic totem pole.[1] On the psychological level this provided them
an element of moral superiority to the poverty they had to endure.
The number of devout poor was certainly high due to the degree of deprivation
in their society. A basic sociological
reality of the ancient world needs to be remembered: most people were in that group. Indeed, around 90 percent of anyone alive in
the first century was either poor--or even worse off.[2] 0
[Page 431] Hence, by definition, most of
the religiously dedicated were poor. That
doesn’t mean all the poor were pious.
It only means that the proportion of them within the believing community as a whole was very large when
compared with the number of the prosperous and well-to-do.
Furthermore, the rich were in the position to do far more damage
(monetarily, physically, and legally) to the poor than vice versa. When the rich abused their position the
results were onerous for the poor; rarely was the reverse true. But the poor are “just” not because they are poor but because of how they live and conduct themselves.
They are the righteous poor.
It is inherently probable that the unrighteous poor bought into
the concept as well: it permitted them also
to “feel” superior to the rich. They knew
they were also poor and therefore “deserved” to receive the same blessings of
the other poor--but glossed over their lack of having the level of moral
character they possessed. Hence, like
our modern ideologues, they surely defined “righteous poor” as “righteous because
poor” rather than “righteous in spite of being poor.” (Casually, but effectively, degrading the
“righteous” element out of the equation.)
The high percentage of the poor in the early church does not, however,
justify all the “righteous” references being to the community as a unit. Indeed, the faithful community can be counted
as “righteous” only because the individual members are such. (At least a sufficiently high percentage that
they dominate the congregation and justify the application of such language to
the group as an entirety.) Hence one is
hard pressed to actually justify making any of James’ references to the
“righteous” as being communal—rather than personal—in nature.
[Page 432] And even if one is somehow
able to do so, the fact that the community is “righteous” still would
not require that every reference in the chapter must be communal as well. For example, Robert W. Wall, citing several
other commentators, insists that, “The ‘pious one’ [in verse 6, rw] is not a
reference to a particular person whether to Jesus or to James himself; rather,
the ‘pious one’ represents an entire community of the pious poor.”[3]
This is surely a manifest exaggeration.
If valid, then the “entire community of the pious poor” had been
annihilated for the subject of that verse is those who have been put to
death. Admittedly any poor person could
be a victim, but since there were those alive to receive, hear, and read this
epistle, obviously this/these death(s) did not affect the bulk of them.
That the rich are condemned not for
being rich but because of their behavior can be seen in the fact that their
excesses are spelled out and emphasized.
To “condemn the rich” requires one only to mention those few words. It does not require any elaboration at
all. Once one starts to pour out the
evils being done, the argument is immediately shifted from punishment for earth
status to punishment for flagrant misconduct.[4]
Furthermore, there is also the not insubstantial problem of assuming
that there were no prosperous or wealthy among those James was writing to. In one place, perhaps, but this is a general
epistle—would it be true in all communities receiving the correspondence? Surely not!
It is their attitude and actions that appall James for their wealth
could just as easily have been used for good rather than self-centered
advancement alone.[5] If James [Page 433] has in mind Christian believers in
particular, it is quite possible that they had fooled themselves into believing
that their wealth provided “evidence of God's approval of their lifestyle and
attitude.”[6]
They may well have thought of the richness of Job, but if they did,
they had forgotten his determined policy of treating others with justice and
fairness. Wealth serving good
purposes, rather than wealth ignoring the opportunity to constructively utilize
its resources.
5:1: Are the rich in the epistle believers? To
repeat our cautionary words from the Problem Texts section of chapter 2: To further complicate the interpretive
picture, it should be remembered that in chapter 2 it is the rich attending
services of the church that are under discussion; in contrast, in chapter 5
they are introduced as oppressors of its members. The same type of rich need not be
under consideration in the two places.
A related controversy to the one just examined in the first question of
this chapter concerns whether the rich depicted in the epistle are to be
considered as believers in Jesus. Once
we introduce the matter of faith into our discussion, the rich = bad people and
poor = good people correlation becomes increasingly difficult to retain. Indeed, if the rich in the epistle are
conceded (either in significant part or in total) to be believers, then the
rigid distinction becomes untenable: in
the New Testament the believers are the “good guys” and those who fail
to measure up to the standard demanded of them are internal deviants from
that ideal. Not an external,
different group.
[Page 434] The same result is even more
certain if we approach the question from the standpoint of identifying the poor
under consideration: no one denies that
even among the temporally poor of the first century, only a small minority ever
became Christians. From the New
Testament perspective, the bulk of the poor still lacked something vitally
important for full acceptability to God. A poor person wasn’t
automatically righteous because of their poverty, but because of their
virtue. How could it be any different
for those who were well off?
It has been claimed that “taken
literally . . James cannot be thinking of Christians.”[7] Christians would not act that way, would
they? As a general rule that may well be
true, but one would be misguided as to real world conditions to deny that some
in any age are capable of just such excesses if the financial benefit is
sufficiently strong.
And having seen how some brethren treat dissenters back in my preaching
days—“crush at all costs”—I remember thinking more than once: “If people like that ran the nation I’d
either be dead or in prison.” So,
depending upon your life experiences, the rampant abuse of justice and decency
does not seem so improbable after all.
On the basis of James 5:1-6 in particular it has been contended that
they weren’t believers—at least in this chapter--since the text does not
“acknowledg[e] any saving faith in them or hope for them.”[8] The assumption in the text is that wealth has
made the individuals hard-hearted and oblivious to their obligations and
responsibilities toward the less fortunate.
But when has the wealth done this? Did this transformation occur because the
changed individual is in the category of “never believed” or is he one who
turned back to bad attitudes and behavior after temporarily reforming and
embracing Christ? Or one who goes
through the motions of becoming a believer but has not allowed the gospel to
work out its desired full moral reformation?
Would not James’ argument in these verses be just as relevant in all
these cases?
[Page 435] Backing the unbeliever status
up—though equally applicable to the hard-hearted believer--is the lack of a
call for repentance. The sentence
structure of 5:1 is particularly pointed to:
“He tells them directly that they are to ‘weep and wail’ not as a sign
of repentance but that they recognize their coming judgement and misery.”[9]
Yes only the
latter are mentioned, but would the fact that the fate is avoidable for another
decade or two or more—assuming the Jewish Revolt is in mind—not carry with it
the implied opportunity for repentance?
If the threatened judgement refers to the physical return of Christ,
then it still hasn’t occurred:
Therefore they had the opportunity to repent through the rest of their lives.
The point was
that “the clock was ticking” and time was running out. The question basically came down to why
they were to “weep and wail.” Was it just
because their delusions of being able to get away with evil “forever” was to be
crushed? Or was it also because
passionate regret can lay the groundwork for moral change? James neither goes and makes an explicit plea
for repentance nor explicit rules out the possibility. He leaves the choice to them.
In all fairness, though, some folk
are beyond repentance. They’ve hardened
their soul so much that they may still be able to weep about physical
losses, but weeping over their spiritual loss is far beyond them. This is also true of some who claim to be
Christians and regularly worship. They
are locked into a way of behavior and nothing can quite dynamite them out of it
and into a different frame of mind.
Habitual habit has effectively destroyed their once existing freedom of
choice.
[Page 436]
Furthermore, the fact that the
sinful rich are directly addressed in chapter 5 would most naturally imply
(though it does not absolutely have to) that they are considered
part of the believing community--at least in sufficient number for them to be
addressed as a distinct group. The Old
Testament prophets similarly addressed the rich in their rebukes because they
also were expected to hear the message.
John MacArthur presents the case this way:
Some have wanted to say he's not talking to
people in the church, then why would he talk to them in the second person and
why would he be speaking to people who aren't there to hear or reading to
people who aren't there to listen? The
fact that he addresses them in the second person means that he has those in
mind who will hear the letter, who had attached themselves to the church in
some way.
It would be pointless for him to be giving
this kind of message to outsiders. Maybe if it was in the third person and he
said, “You tell them what I want them to know,” but this direct approach
assumes their presence and that they would be in the sound of the hearing of
this letter when it was read to the whole church.
These are people who, to some degree or
other, want to be identified with God, to some degree or other want to have
Christ in their life. But they don't
come on God's terms.
[Page 437] On the other hand, are
hypothetical listeners impossible? After
all, when the prophets in the Old Testament speak to various foreign nations,
it is very unlikely that they expected their words to actually reach their
ears--at least not in any significant degree.
(Though if one acknowledges that there was an international passing of
wisdom literature from one nation to another, one can’t help but wonder whether
prophetic writings might also--at least occasionally--go into other nations as
well.)
But we must remember that the Old Testament text itself makes
clear that such foreigners are under discussion. For a convincing parallel, an explicit
identification of them as outsiders would need to be the case in James as well,
which it is not.
What is the situation in the
other chapters as to the identity of the rich hearers? In chapter one there is a contrast between a
“lowly” individual (1:9) and a “rich” person (
In James two, the rich individual is
actually in the Christian assembly (2:2). An oddity unless he was a fellow
believer. (Though perhaps a visitor
since he is pointed to a seat in 2:3.)
Even if we assume that this was a judicial meeting of the church, why
would the rich person attend and be involved unless joined in shared ties of
faith? Furthermore 2:4 warns that when
favoritism for the rich is shown then “you have shown partiality among
yourselves.” In other words, the
rich person is one of “yourselves,” a fellow follower of Jesus.
[Page 438] Hence the fairest judgment
seems to be that the “rich” James is particularly concerned with, are the believing
rich, though his logic—especially based upon Old Testament warnings to the wealthy—would
be applicable to either the traditional Jewish or Jewish Christian. (Or the outright pagan, for that
matter.) The temptation to abuse mostly comes
from the wealth and the assumed authority and “rights” that grow out of being
wealthy and even the believer can be quite vulnerable to that kind of temptation.
James is not in a position, however, where his words would mean much to
outsiders; he is in a position of prominence where his teaching should
mean a great deal to fellow Christians.
And that also argues that even if the non-Christian wealthy are primarily
in mind, the teaching is quite consciously aimed at fellow believers as
well.
5:3: Gold and silver do not actually rust. Several approaches are used to deal with this
matter.
The unused resources approach. It has been
noted that the underlying Greek word rendered “corroded” also covers both
rusting and tarnishing. Although gold
will not literally corrode or rust, it can become tarnished.[11] “The tarnish was [an] indication of how long
the horded wealth had lain idle.”[12]
It represented a physical indictment of the possessors for not
using their possessions--not merely for not doing good with them, but with
being so possessive that they hadn’t even used it for evil behavior either! Such individuals are ones to whom both virtue
and sin are secondary to possessiveness.
Yet unless possessions are used, they lose their very purpose for
existing.
[Page 439] Evidence for such an intended
interpretation can be seen in the other type of possession specifically
mentioned: “your garments are
moth-eaten” (5:2). “This implies that
these clothes weren’t worn, but sitting somewhere – that the owner has more
than he/she can wear and, in fact, never wears these. The last I checked, no
moths ever ate any of my clothes while I was wearing them. No clothing article
ever rotted while it was being worn and cared for.”[13]
Just as the abundance of clothes were stashed away and never (or
rarely) used—the pride of having was adequate to gloat over them—hence the
gold could easily have been treated in a similar manner. Not for bad and not for good. Not for any purpose. It became something to wallow over--possessing
as an idle end in itself. This
would make the two illustrations of rust and moths as being intended to make
the same point.[14]
The “destruction” of the money
becomes an image to describe the destruction of its usefulness: we ultimately lose the benefits or lose what
we expected to gain from our ill-gotten gains.
If we do not lose the benefits in the here and now, we inevitably lose
the advantages they could bring when we answer to God for their misuse.[15]
Some have noted that the Greek tense
used in this connection can carry the connotation of “ ‘completely
rusted’ or ‘rusted right through,’ where no integrity to the base metal
remains.”[16] By our own actions and inactions, we turn it
into something utterly unusable and of no importance—reversing what they
normally would be. They have made valueless
what normally has great value—all due to misplaced priorities and warped values.
[Page 440]
Another approach: Pseudo-rust due to debasement. Isaiah
The Pulpit Commentary suggests, however, “Primarily, ‘thy great
men have deteriorated.’ From pure
silver, they have become mere dross, the vile refuse of the smelted ore, only
fit to be cast away as worthless.”
Instead of them having true silver, what they have—in genuine value—is
only the valueless and useless leftovers of its creation. In other words, they have transformed
something of value to something of no use (which would lead us to the unused
resources approach that we just examined.)
Just like silver, gold could
likewise be debased. When ancient
When the
[Page 441] Now
copper does not rust—but it visibly appears to because oxidation gives
it a “patina” (coating). It is produced
by the copper itself when exposed to moisture or the air. Now since “padding” the gold with copper was
not that uncommon, the imagery of gold “rusting” might well have been born from
it—since the (more or less) gold coin gave the appearance of
rusting.
Language does not have to be literally true
to convey a powerful point. Whether literally true or not, the gold
rusting imagery is the kind of language intended to convey a vivid illustration--to
get across the intended spiritual truth.
Hence Jesus utilized similar imagery when he spoke in terms of temporal
“treasures” (rather than gold and silver in particular) and how that “moth and
rust destroy” and that “thieves break in and steal” them (Matthew
The fact that both Jesus and James utilize the same image argues that
it was a well recognized one in their society—literally true, perhaps not. But both speaker and audience would know that
and still grasp the truth being driven at:
The very items testifying of their temporal prosperity would testify
against them, being evidence of their twisted priorities.[19]
We might wish to think of James’
remark as sarcastic: Those of his day
knew full well that gold and silver don’t actually rust. What he implies, in effect, is, “You’ve done
the impossible. By your behavior you’ve
even made your valuables of gold and silver rust through non-use for righteous
purposes.”
[Page 442]
5:3: “Treasure in the last days:” “Treasure.” What
they had was a treasure of money; useful, even desirable. But they had sacrificed the treasury of
helpfulness and humanitarian concern in order to obtain and enrich it. It was not evil to have temporal treasure; it
was evil not to have used any of it in a non-self-centered manner.
The image of true “treasure” being something beyond mere temporal
possessions and that of wealth rusting away (James 5:1) was not a new one. They were combined in the admonition of the
deuterocanonical book of Sirach that one cultivate the benevolent mind-frame
James advocates in the second chapter of his book,
Nevertheless, be patient
with someone in humble circumstances, and
do not keep him waiting for your alms.
Help the poor for the
commandment’s sake, and in their need do not send them away empty-
handed. Lose your silver for the
sake of a brother or a friend, and do not let
it rust under a stone and be lost. Lay up your treasure according to the
commandments of the Most High, and it will profit you more than
gold.
Store up almsgiving in your treasury, and it will rescue you
from every
disaster; better than a stout shield and a sturdy spear, it will fight
for you
against the enemy” (29:8-13; NRSV).
[Page 443]
It is often assumed
that the above words encourage the wealthy to take the risk of loaning to the
poor (see the headings in the TEV of this chapter, for example). The preceding section does include a
discussion of the risks of lending (verses 1-7) and the following one a
discussion of what we today would call cosigning on a loan and embracing the
idea of doing so--as long as one protects oneself against dangerous financial
exposure if the other person defaults (verses 14-20). So this approach is not without its merits,
but verses 8-13 still read as if embracing generous charity giving in
addition to the other two types of helping the poor that are mentioned.
And
such “almsgiving” is labeled as a form of “lay(ing) up your treasure.” Not for oneself—since one is giving away
something. Hence saving “treasure up with
God” seems the virtually certain intent of the words.
5:3: “Treasure in
the last days:” “The last days.” This leaves us with the question of in what
sense is the term “last days” utilized?
If one assumes that James has in mind the physical termination of the
world, then the thought would be that their sins were so large in number that
they constituted the moral equivalent of a monetary “treasure” and that
when Jesus returned they would answer for accumulating that pseudo-treasure of
sins.[20]
A judgement of some kind is
clearly being anticipated. It is not
explicitly described as the judgement of Christ—or of God. Yet since it is clearly coming because of
their sins, it can hardly be described as anything other than Divine judgement,
whether delivered personally by Christ or through their use of earthly
intermediary tools.
If the event when this was to occur is literally near-term, the
probability is that James has in mind the fact that his readers were living in
the last days of Jewish national [Page 444]
independence.[21] When the people threw down the gauntlet to
Again, if the
predicted event is literally near-term, the expression “last days” naturally
grows out of that imagery of nearness and closeness. If it was that close, how could it be
anything other than the “last days” for them?
Working from that background the text is implying what we have in the
ATP, “You have piled up treasure that will convict you in these last
days.” In other words, they were living
within that period when they would have to answer for their accumulated abuses.
Perhaps one useful
means of helping determine the intent of the language is by asking ourselves
how a Jewish Christian of say 80 or 90 A.D. would have interpreted its
intent. Would it not be extraordinary if
they interpreted it as NOT
including the disaster at
[Page 445] Some have suggested that the
“last days” are the last days of their lives. In the story of the rich man and Lazarus, the
very night the braggart boasted of his wealth and plans for his abundant possessions
was the very night he died (Luke 12:19-20).[22] A similar lesson is found in an ancient
Jewish tale of the individual who purchased enough shoes to last seven years,
but he died in seven days.[23]
This interpretation works best if the individuals addressed were sickly
or in immediate danger. There is nothing
to indicate they were.
On the other hand, one could attempt to deal with this by arguing
that—in a destruction of Jerusalem setting—they were (with obvious
exceptions) living in the last days of their lives though they had no knowledge
of the exact timing. Even if it was
still two or three decades away, that would still be arguably correct.
However, taken this way, James’ argument would seem to require that the
majority (if not the bulk) of the rich would be facing punishment, but did
that kind of percentage die in the Great Revolt? On the emotional level, of course, it took
only a significant minority for it to seem that a “generation of wealthy” had
been destroyed. Shifting away from the
last days of their lives to a last days of
Others who see a parallel in the
story of the rich man, present our text as being based on a play of words
between the intent of the rich and what is actually going to happen. The “rich have stored up treasure for their own
latter years (‘in the last days’)” [we would call it retirement] while they are
also currently living in their “last days” chronologically. And they are facing all their possessions
being dismissed as insignificant and irrelevant in the eschatological judgement
of the “last days.”
[Page 446] Finding a “retirement” element
with the wordage “in the last days” would seem an unusual stretch. Would not the wording more properly (and
likely) be, “for your last days”?
Although one may find a few less widely used translations rendering
“for” as a replacement for “in,” it’s hard sailing to find any that speak of
“your.” Of course a quiet parallelism
would not necessarily have to be made this explicit, but barring it, why search
for it in the text in the first place?
Even here
we are still working with a variant of a strict short-term chronological
“last days,” the end of which was literally not all that far distant. But can the expression also be legitimately used
of a far longer period of time in
addition to or in place of this?
A. The “last days” as exclusively the period of
time from Jesus to the physical return of Jesus—excluding the short term usage
by inference. In this approach, the “last days” began
at Pentecost and end with the second physical coming of Jesus. Jon W. Quinn sums up this common approach
this way:[24]
When the Bible uses the term last days,
rather than referring only to that time just prior to Jesus' return, it refers
to the whole period of time from the death, resurrection and ascension of
Christ to the end when He comes again.
Yes, we are living in the last days, but so was Napoleon, Christopher
Columbus and
[Page 447]
Arguing this allows one to take to task that multitude of preachers who
discover “signs that we are living in the last days,” interpreting the term to
mean something that has only now begun.
If the last days included Pentecost, then they began two
millennium ago and such interpretations have to be overwrought speculation at
the best.
At least in passing it should be noted that the “last days” seems to
have begun a bit earlier than the typical formulation of “at His death.” Hebrews 1:2 speaks of how God “has in these
last days spoken to us by His
Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the
worlds.”
Would that not mean that Jesus’ teaching ministry was part of
the last days—that it began prior to His death?
One could attempt to avoid this by arguing that the text refers just to
teaching Jesus delivered after His ascension via the Holy Spirit (cf.
John 16:12-15), but wouldn’t that seemingly arbitrarily and needlessly limit
when Jesus “spoke to us”?
B.
The dual usage scenario: of the expression
“last days” as referring to both before a specific
event AND as the duration from Jesus to the physical end of the universe. Which it would be would vary according to the
specific text under consideration. The threat to the rich is relevant to
both, though in different senses—physical loss of wealth at the time of the
earthly disaster and the rejection by God at the end of the world.
[Page 448] In place of an either/or
situation, we then have an either/and situation: Some texts that use the expression
refer to what happened at the fall of
Or to find fulfillment in both events, for that matter—since
there can be temporal judgements long before standing in front of the judgement
seat of Christ. One could easily lose
everything in this world, but still have to answer to Christ for how
that once held wealth was gained and used.
There would be a “judgement” in both contexts.
One can also come to the dual usage approach as a deduction from the
fact that the earthly judgement spoken of by James—whether interpreted of
Jerusalem and/or other first century events—clearly did not result in the
visible and physical return of the Lord; hence, the expression “last days” can
not be intended to be limited to either event alone.
Some argue that the expression is used of only one event, but that
other texts imply the same concept without invoking the language: they insist that all New Testament
usages of the expression refer to the fall of Jerusalem but that the Book of
Revelation teaches the concept of another set of last days preceding Jesus’
return.[25]
Yet others, advocating Full Preterism—in either its Covenant
Eschatology or other form—insist that, “All prophecy was fulfilled in
C.E. 70. . . . We are not living in the
Biblical ‘last days.’ We are living in
‘the ages to come’ . . . .”[26]
Of course this scenario argues that the physical ending of the world
traditionally found in 2 Peter 3 represents a fundamental misunderstanding of
how such language is used in the Old Testament.
There it certainly meant vast temporal disaster and even the elimination
of whatever city or empire is specifically under discussion in a given passage. The language was not used in the sense of
“total elimination” that we customarily accept in 2 Peter 3.
[Page 449] On the other hand, in those
earlier cases the earth continued quite well while the specific city or
empire lost its power and control. 2
Peter speaks, however, of “the earth” (verse 10) and not of some specific
geographic location on the earth.
A universal and not geographically limited intent can be seen in the
fact that the world wide flood in the days of Noah is given as precedent
(verses 6-7). In other words, world wide
and not location specific destruction. To
make the text apply to the
The world could always survive flooding but can it survive the global
conflagration pictured in verses 10-11?
One might be able to take the text to mean a total purification of
physical and spiritual evil—a recreation of
To further complicate the picture, some passages that do not even mention
the term “last days” are introduced into the discussion (Matthew 24 and its
parallels). One commentator sums it up
concisely, “The key passage in determining the meaning of the ‘Last Days’ is
Matthew 24, the Olivet Discourse. While other passages hint, suggest and offer
tantalizing glimpses, Matthew 24 lays out a specific prophetic agenda.”[27]
I must confess a certain difficulty in using a text that does not use
an expression to explain the meaning of that expression. It’s not impossible, I would think, but it
would seem to put a person under unusually strong obligation to clearly prove
the propriety of invoking it.
[Page 450] Indeed, I have no problem with
the conclusion that at least much of that chapter does concern the last
days of that city, but since Jesus conspicuously avoids invoking the
language of “last days”—and would not a specific introduction of it have fitted
perfectly?—I find the greatest difficulty with introducing a different
controversy into a passage that does not require it for its valid exegesis: Fulfillment in the first century of at least
a goodly hunk of the chapter.
Likewise there seems a lack of wisdom in introducing a text that is city
specific and assuming that the implied subject of its last days is
the only specific meaning possible for wherever else the expression is
used—and without any mention being made of the city in those other texts!
Matthew 24 and its parallels are interpreted by varying commentators as
(a) exclusively of the fall of Jerusalem, (b) as entirely referring to the end
of earth time, (c) of certain major divisions referring to one or the other
event, (d) individual verses jumping from one of these to another, and (e) at
least some having double application to both events. My own approach can be found in my book on
Matthew 24: Where Apocalyptic and
History Merge: A Historian’s Perspective
on Matthew 24 and Its Parallels in Light of Old Testament Precedent.
Although Jesus is clearly describing
the “last days” of Jerusalem in part of that chapter (though not using the
term), it requires that the entire chapter have that topic under
discussion if we wish to have any hope to limit the expression to that one
event. Furthermore, if other texts—as
they have traditionally been interpreted—do, indeed, refer to an event still
even in our future, then the New Testament would still implicitly teach
a “last days” fully independent of anything that happened to Jerusalem.
[Page 451]
Aside: Covenant Eschatology advocates argue that
“the last days” refers to the last days of the Old Covenant and that
this period ended with the destruction of the
Its practice certainly extended that far even though, in God’s
sight it was already “obsolete;” it was only then that it “vanish(ed) away” (Hebrews
Be that as it may, the relevance of this in the current context lies in
the fact that we are examining how James speaks of the punishment of the unjust
rich occurring “in the last days.” I
find it very hard to believe that James’ point is, “You have heaped up treasure
in the last days of the Old Testament.” We have no indication that these are
particularly pious people at all; indeed their behavior argues against it. “Last days of the Old Testament” would have
been a nearly meaningless argument to them.
Shift it to the “last days of
Although he does not explicitly urge them to repent, it is hard to
believe that he did not wish them to do so.
Could the destruction of the Old Testament motivate them to repent? Why?
Of
[Page 452]
5:6: Who
was the righteous man who was killed? The use of the language of killing/murder in
verse 6 fits well with the picture of the rich in verse 5 as engaged in
“slaughter.” The connection would be
that they have prepared themselves for destruction, just as they had inflicted
destruction upon their contemporaries.
An alternate connection (but less likely to be intended) is that they
made possible that luxurious life style by the destruction--whether literal or figurative--of
those who labored to produce their wealth for them.[28] But that still leaves us with the need to
identify the individual(s) being killed.
Jesus as
the “just” victim. In behalf of this person being Jesus is the
fact that the honorable individual is called “the just” in 5:6 and this is an
expression applied to Jesus in Acts
Because of this and the fact that the death of Jesus was the preeminent
first century example of the just being unjustly executed, it is not surprising
that ancient post-apostolic sources utilized the phrase in this manner though
not using it in a way indicating that this particular text is in their mind.[29] Older modern commentators (rather few
twentieth century ones)[30]
have adopted this approach or adopted a dual innocent contemporary/innocent
Jesus interpretation.[31]
[Page 453] Much can be said against the
linkage, however. The admonition is that
“you” have killed this righteous individual.
If the Jewish leadership of the Sanhedrin is being targeted—and they were
the individuals that successfully advocated and pushed through the arrest and
prosecution—would not that identification be more clearly presented?
Here the connection is between wealth and killing the righteous poor. In contrast the Sanhedrin’s wealth was not
challenged by Jesus nor was He executed because of His poverty. The conflict was over credibility as
religious leaders—something significantly different. They did not kill Jesus to exterminate a poor
thorn in the flesh but a quite successful religious opponent.
The more years that had passed since the crucifixion the less likely
the connection seems possible. The fact
that the victim did not resist is in the present tense--as if the event(s) were
either very recent or represented an ongoing abuse.[32]
Furthermore, although in a sense all
who dwelt in Jerusalem bore at least a partial guilt for their passively
tolerating what happened (cf. Peter’s rebuke in Acts 2:23), James was written
for those in the Diaspora--who had not even a token connection with the
judicial murder that was inflicted upon Jesus.[33] (To the extent that the epistle had a regional
Palestinian target audience, to that extent this argument is partially
undermined.)
In addition, there is nothing explicit
in the preceding text that leads one to expect an introduction of the
example of Jesus.[34] As already noted, the sufferer in James is
spoken of in the present tense as one who “does not resist you,” an unexpected
tense when referring to an event a number of years in the past.[35]
[Page 454] Not to mention that there is
nothing in the Biblical record that blames the death of Jesus on the category
of people under discussion by James, that is, the rich.[36] No doubt the religious hierarchy behind His
injustice was stuffed with the rich, but it is never their wealth that is
singled out as cause for their conduct toward Him.
The
killed one as James, the author of this epistle. In church
history James gained the appellation “the just” or “the righteous one.” To give but one source, “In describing the
various accounts and traditions about the death of James, the brother of Jesus,
Eusebius says things like this: ‘. . .
since he was by all men believed to be the most righteous . . .’ and ‘He was
called the ‘Just’ (or ‘Righteous’) by all men from the Lord’s time to ours . .
.’ and ‘So from his excessive righteousness he was called the Just.’ ”[37]
Having James use the term of himself does, however, strike one
as a tad egotistical or manifesting an unexpected amount of brazen pride. This seems manifestly in contradiction to the
general moral tone he strikes in the remainder of the book. Furthermore there seems a serious incongruity
of his insistence on teachers (and others) watching what they said and then
throwing in, in effect, “but remember that I’m the just one.”
These tensions perhaps could be removed if one assumes that the book
was based upon James’ teachings or writings and that this is an allusion
to the one whose material is being compiled, preserved, and circulated. On the other hand this requires the
interjection not only of an uncertain specific identity for the “just
one,” but also the embracing of a far from proved scenario that the book
is actually a compilation. The use of
Occam’s Razor appears clearly called for.
[Page 455]
The
killed one as any righteous, Christian poor individual. The term
“just” (or “righteous one”) surely includes more than one individual,
for the abuse of power that crushes one person who is an obstacle is just as
likely to crush any other inconvenient individual who can be
abused. At the very least, it must never
be forgotten that the innocent individual is the one under consideration
so the terminology would fit both Jesus and whoever else became a victim
of the naked power of the wealthy. There
is nothing in the context to make it refer to a specific individual at
all.
Furthermore, the Old Testament
certainly warns of the danger of the just being crushed by their powerful enemies—not
in regard to any one particular person but as a generic, ongoing danger for
whoever is powerless and poor. For
example Psalms 37 speaks in such language, equating the poor and the just in
verse 14 (since in utilitarian terms they are always more abundant in that
group than in the rich),
12 The wicked plots against
the just (as here in James 5:6, RW), and gnashes at him with his teeth. 13 The Lord laughs at him, for He
sees that his day is coming (as in James 5:7-8, RW). 14 The wicked have drawn the sword and have bent their bow, to cast
down the poor and needy, to slay those who are of upright conduct. 15 Their sword shall enter their own heart, and their bows shall be
broken. 16
A little that a righteous man has is better than the
riches of many wicked. 17 For the arms of the wicked
shall be broken, but the Lord upholds the righteous.
[Page 456] 30
The mouth
of the righteous speaks wisdom, and his tongue talks of justice. 31 The law of his God is in his heart; none of
his steps shall slide. 32 The wicked watches the
righteous, and seeks to slay him.
33
The Lord will not leave him in his
hand, nor condemn him when he is judged. 34 Wait on the Lord, and keep His way, and He shall exalt you to inherit the land;
when the wicked are cut off, you shall see it.
35 I have seen the wicked in
great power, and spreading himself like a native green tree. 36 Yet he passed away, and
behold, he was no more; indeed I sought him, but he could not be found.
Note that the Psalmist sees a kind
of “comeuppance” for the unjust rich in this life. He speaks of how he had seen those with
“great power” who seemed to be prospering with no end in sight “like a native
green tree.” “Yet he passed away, and
behold, he was no more.” In other
words, whatever other judgment God may bring upon him in the Final Day—he
will still die in the current world.
Money won’t buy him eternal life.
And the Psalmist himself found it nigh impossible to believe for, even
after hearing of his death, he still “sought him, but he could not be
found.” His death was simply
“impossible.” But it had still happened!
The
“murder” being committed: directly so or
indirectly? In our exegesis
section we briefly considered the possibility that open and clear-cut
assassination / extermination might be included, at least in certain
cases. (When one believes one can abuse
power, the inclination is to go as far as prudence permits.)
[Page 457] Specifically, they are accused
of striking out at their laborers and denying them their rightful wages (verse
4). To deny a working person his due
wages was to (sooner or later) kill him.
If you wish, it can be called “indirect murder” rather than “direct
murder.”
There was an ancient Jewish
tradition that took such actions in exactly this manner. The ancient Sirach had made this connection
explicit, “The bread of the needy is the life of the poor; whoever deprives
them of it is a murderer. To take away a
neighbor’s living is to commit murder; to deprive an employee of wages is to
shed blood” (34:25-27, NRSV). Although
James does not make this point explicitly, it is certainly one that fits well
with the preceding verses.
We recognize that extreme punitive action has been inflicted upon the
undeserving but the text does not explain why it happens. In many cases it would be sheer
economics—impoverishing others is a quite successful tool for enhancing one’s
own income. Nothing else is really
envolved beyond “the bottom line.”
However, there are times when other factors can be wrapped into the situation
as well. In the kind of case discussed
by James, those victimizing others may well have had contempt for both their poverty
and their devoutness. It made them feel guilty. It was a way of striking out at those who had
the “naïve” idea that the wealthy should embrace non-self-serving ideals as
well. It was a way of striking out
against those who were doing so with none of the advantages their
economic “betters” possessed.
[Page 458] Hence we read of the reasoning
of the oppressors in the Wisdom of Solomon—in which the poor are targeted specifically
because they are morally upright:
(10)
Let us oppress the needy just man; let us neither spare the widow
nor revere the old man for his hair grown white with time. (11)
But let our strength be our norm of justice; for weakness proves itself
useless.
(12)
Let us beset the just one, because he is obnoxious to us; he sets
himself against our doings, reproaches us for our transgressions of the law and
charges us with violation of our training.
(13) He professes to have
knowledge of God and styles himself a child of the Lord.
(14)
To us he is the censure of our thoughts; merely to see him is a hardship
for us, (15) because his life is not like other men’s, and
different are his ways. (16) He judges us debased; he holds aloof from our
paths as from things impure. He calls
blest the destiny of the just and boasts that God is his Father.
(17)
Let us see whether his words be true; let us find out what will happen
to him. (18) For if the just one be the son of God, H will
defend him and deliver him from the hands of his foes. (19) With
revilement and torture let us put him to the test that we may have proof of his
gentleness and try his patience.
(20) Let us condemn him to a
shameful death; for according to his own words, God will take care of him.
(21)
These were their thoughts, but they erred; for their wickedness blinded
them, (22) and they knew not the hidden counsels of God; neither did they count
on a recompense of holiness nor discern the innocent souls’ reward (Chapter 2;
New American Bible).
[Page 459]
If one seeks to dilute the apparent literalness of the James 5:6 text
in describing death being afflicted, one should consider the possibility that
James is rebuking the destruction of the confidence, respect, and hope of the
poor. Death by character assassination.
This would tie in well with James’ earlier repeated rebuke of the
misuse of the tongue. In a class
orientated society such as that of the first century, ridicule and denunciation
would be even harder to bear than it is in our age when such divisions are far
less pronounced. If James’ intent is to
speak of the hurt and injury verbal excess can produce, then he is reproducing
the kind of imagery found in Sirach 28:18, “Many have fallen by the edge of the
sword, but not as many as have fallen because of the tongue.”
Notes
[1] Davids, James: A Commentary, 44.
[2] For
evidence see Nystrom, 56.
[3] Wall, 232.
[5] Del Oke, “James 5—What Measuring Rod Are You
Using?” Posted
[7] Bowman, 112.
[Page 460] [8] Stulac,
80. For a detailed discussion of the
question from this perspective also see 190-201 of the same work.
[9] Neufeld, n.p.
[10] For a
discussion of this text from this perspective, see Mitton, 36-38. Contrast his views on the identity of the
rich in chapter 2 (175-176).
[11] Burdick,
199.
[12] Ibid.
[13]
[14] Ibid. His
preferred approach is that the reference is to gold becoming debased in
value--and this man’s gold being assumed to be just as valueless as the
newer issues. What was intended to
assure his future would not now be able to do so.
[15] Morris,
89.
[16] Explaining the approach without necessarily embracing
it, McCartney, 232.
[17] Mike Pagach, “How Great Civilizations Fall by
Debasing Their Gold and Silver Money.”
At:
http://thenumisnetworkreview.com/943/how-great-civilizations-fall-by-debasing-their-gold-and-silver-money/. [July 2012.]
[19] Cf. Scott Sperling.
“James 5:1-9.” At: http://www.scripturestudies.com/Vol2/
B5/b5_nt.html. [July 2012.]
[20] McCartney,
200.
[21] Plumptre,
97.
[22] Sidebottom,
57.
[23] Ibid.
[24] Jon W.
Quinn, The Last Word on the Last
Days.” Expository Files 6.3
(March 1999). At:
http://www.bible.ca/ef/topical-the-last-word-on-the-last-days.htm. [July 2012.]
[Page 461] [25] Mark
H. Miller, “Why We Cannot Preach These are ‘the Last Days.’ ” From Nazarene Commentary 2000. At:
http://www.nazarene-friends.org/articles/Why
%20We%20Cannot%20Preach%20These%20are%20The%20Last%20Days.php. [July 2012.]
[26] J. W. Bernard, “The Last Days.” At:
http://www.jerrybernard.com/lessons/ LastDays.htm. [July 2012.]
[27] Brian
Abshire, “The Meaning and Significance of the Term ‘the Last Days’ in New
Testament Prophecy.” At:
http://www.preteristarchive.com/PartialPreterism/ abshire-brian_pp_01.html. [July 2012.]
[28] Cf.
Sidebottom, 57.
[29] For
citations see Laws, 205-206.
[30] Songer,
129. For a lengthy and passionate
defense of the text as a reference to Jesus see Woods, 269-271.
[31] Songer,
129.
[32] Lenski,
652.
[33] Plumptre,
99.
[34] For
this idea in different language see Williams, 133.
[35] Ibid.
[36] Hartin, James, 230.
[37] As quoted by McKnight, James, 398.